A Par Excellent Interpretation
Heb 2:5-8a It is not to angels that he has subjected the
world
to come, about which we are speaking. But there is a place
where
someone has testified: "What is man that you are mindful of him,
the son of man that you care for him? You made him a little lower than
the angels; you crowned him with glory and honor and put everything
under his feet."
(Ps 8:4-6)
By "the world to come" he may be referring to the millenial Kingdom
in particular or that which comes after that in which there will be a
new heavens and new earth (
Rev 21:1) See also
the Dispensations of
the Kingdom of God. In any case
"in keeping
with his promise we are looking forward to a new heaven and a new
earth, the home of righteousness." 2Pet 3:13
But as for the quote from Psalms one would think it's simply referring
to "man" in general. And as to the phrase "the son of man", it's used
extensively in Ezekiel to refer to Ezekiel. But the writer is using
Psalms not simply as proof, but rather is prophetically interpreting it
for us. Jesus referred to himself as "the Son of Man". How is that
different than Ezekiel being called "son of man"? There's a grammatical
construct known as "
Par Excellence", though it's a construct
that depends on interpretation. But you can see an example (and I get
this from Wallace's
Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics) in
John
1:21 where John the Baptist is asked "Are you
the prophet?"
For
while
there
are
many
prophets,
there is also "THE Prophet" of whom
is prophecied to come in
Deut 18:15, of whom Peter in
Acts
3:22 and Stephen in
Acts 7:37 say is Jesus Christ.
Likewise with other scripture. While Ezekiel and others are referred to
as "son of man", Jesus is THE (Par Excellence) Son of Man.
Wallace also gives his own example of Par Excellence saying
For example, if in late January someone were to say to you,
"Did you see the game?" you might reply, "Which game?"
They might then reply, "The game! The only game worth watching!
The BIG game! You know, the Super Bowl!" This is the article used
in a par excellence way.
This grammatical construct helps to understand alot of messianic
interpretations of Old Testament. For while the passage may be
immediately referring to King David (as in the case of
Psalm 22)
or
people
in
general,
or
categories
of people, such passages given a
Par Excellence interpretation are also alluding ultimately to the
Messiah.
Everything
Subject to Jesus
Heb 2:8b-9 In putting everything under
him, God left nothing that is not subject to him. Yet at present we do
not see everything subject to him. But we see Jesus, who was made a
little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because
he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for
everyone.
"God placed all things under his feet and
appointed him to be head over everything" Eph 1:22a But
we await the world to come to really see this implemented. Jesus,
"who, being in very nature God, did not consider
equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing,
taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And
being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became
obedient to death— even death on a cross! Therefore God exalted him to
the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name" Php
2:6-9 "For Christ died for sins once for all,
the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God." 1Peter
3:18a "He is the atoning sacrifice for our
sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world." 1John 2:2
Jesus, the
Captain of Salvation
Heb 2:10 In bringing many sons to glory,
it was fitting that God, for whom and through whom everything exists,
should make the author (more precisely "captain") of their salvation perfect through suffering.
While Jesus is uniquely THE (Par Excellence) Son of God, there are also
sons of God, those who were given the right to become sons of God
through faith in Jesus Christ (
John 1:12) For
"you are all sons of God through faith in Christ
Jesus" Gal 3:26 The word "author" here is more
precisely "the chief leader or prince" as the Greek Lexicon mentions,
which is consistent with its usage 23 times in the Septuagint The NKJV
and KJV accurately uses "captain" here. The word is used 4 times in the
New Testament but the translations are inconsistent. In fact "author"
is a bad translation of the word. It was introduced for theological
reasons (and not good ones) and not for grammatical reasons. Jesus, as
our leader, has provided us with salvation, but we must follow him into
it to be saved.
"For to this you were
called, because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example,
that you should follow His steps:" 1Peter 2:21 And
"if we are children, then we are heirs— heirs of
God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in
order that we may also share in his glory." Rom 8:17
This word is also used in
Heb 5:9 which should properly read,
"And having been perfected, He became the captain
of eternal salvation to all who obey Him". Heb 5:9
The word "author" would not fit here as there is no implication that
one should obey an author.
But as for being perfected through suffering, wasn't Jesus perfect to
begin with? Not as the captain of our salvation he wasn't, until he
went through suffering and death. I noted Heb 5:9 above. That and the
verse before it goes,
"Although he was a son, he
learned obedience from what he suffered and, once made perfect, he
became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him." Heb
5:8,9 Previously Jesus never experience what it was to obey God as
a man in the environment in which we live. It's not that easy.
"For this reason he had to be made like his brothers
in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful
high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the
sins of the people. Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he
is able to help those who are being tempted." Heb 2:17,18
"For we do not have a high priest who is unable
to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted
in every way, just as we are— yet was without sin." Heb 4:15
As you can see, much of this issue is covered in the book of Hebrews
Jesus' Family
Heb 2:11-13 Both the one who makes men
holy and those who are made holy are of the same family. So Jesus is
not ashamed to call them brothers. He says, "I will declare your name
to my brothers; in the presence of the congregation I will sing your
praises." (Psalm 22:22) And again,
"I will put my trust in him." (Isaiah 8:17) And again he says, "Here am I, and the children God
has given me." (Isaiah 8:18)
In one sense to the Christian, Jesus is like our older brother. THE
Church (Par Excellence) - incorporating all believers in Christ - is a
family - the family of God. And
"as we have
opportunity, let us do good to all people, especially to those who
belong to the family of believers." Gal 6:10 Family
should have a special connection not shared by those outside the
family. (But there are many who may attend a "church" but deny such a
family connection with Christians who don't go to their church. For
institutional allegiance is not necessarily indicative that one is in
the faith.)
Psalm 22 is heavily messianic as one finds verses throughout which
apply in detail to Christ's crucifixion. In fact Jesus quoted this
Psalm while he was on the cross. Consequently I think he was meditating
through this Psalm while he was dying. Verse 22 is when the Psalm turns
rather positive. One thing that encouraged Jesus on the cross was to
think about being with his brothers - the Christian community.
The next two quotes are meant to be taken together as they are
Isaiah
8:17,18. I'm reminded of
John 17:6 "I
have
revealed
you
to
those
whom you gave me out of the world. They were
yours; you gave them to me and they have obeyed your word." and
John
6:37 "All that the Father gives me will come
to me, and whoever comes to me I will never drive away"
All this to say that while Jesus is exalted above all, he likes to
associate with the lowly. He is more than a friend to the righteous. He
is a brother.
Jesus Frees
Us
Heb 2:14,15 Since the children have
flesh and blood, he too shared
in their humanity so that by his death he might destroy him who holds
the power of death— that is, the devil— and free those who all their
lives were held in slavery by
their fear of death.
That is, Jesus,
"who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made
himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in
human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled
himself and became obedient to death— even death on a cross!" Php 2:6-8
Christ's death saves the Christian from the consequences of their sin -
which is firstly, death.
"For the wages of sin
is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord."
Rom 6:23 Thus
"we know that since Christ was
raised from the dead, he cannot die again; death no longer has mastery
over him. The death he died, he died to sin once for all; but the life
he lives, he lives to God. In the same way, count yourselves dead to
sin but alive to God in Christ Jesus." Rom 6:9-11
But where does the devil come in? Why bring up the devil? In Genesis
the devil was the source of the fall that led mankind into death. And
likewise, but for the protective hand of God, the devil causes people
to suffer and die - including Christ. Note in the case of Job the devil
sought permission to destroy Job. Alot of things that happen, whether
natural disasters or otherwise have their origin in the devil. And
though God doesn't endorse his actions, he permits them, much as Joseph
said of his brother's evil actions,
"You
intended to harm me, but God intended it for good" Gen 50:20a
Another example of this sort of thing is seen in 2Corinthians when God
used the devil to help the apostle Paul maintain a proper level of
humility.
"To keep me from becoming conceited
because of these surpassingly great revelations, there was given me a
thorn in my flesh, a messenger of Satan, to torment me." 2Cor 12:7 The devil intended harm, but
God intended good.
There is a kingdom of darkness, ruled by Satan, which God saves us
from.
"For he has rescued us from the dominion
of darkness and brought us into the kingdom of the Son he loves" Col 1:13 "As for
you, you were dead in your transgressions and sins, in which you used
to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of
the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are
disobedient. All of us also lived among them at one time, gratifying
the cravings of our sinful nature and following its desires and
thoughts. Like the rest, we were by nature objects of wrath. But
because of his great love for us, God, who is rich in mercy, made us
alive with Christ even when we were dead in transgressions— it is by
grace you have been saved." Eph 2:1-5
Jesus Helps
Us
Heb 2:16 For surely it is not angels he
helps, but Abraham’s descendants.
But
"Are not all angels ministering spirits sent
to serve those who will inherit salvation?" Heb 1:14
So
what's
this
about
Abraham's descendants? The New Testament teaches
us that Abraham's descendants are those who will inherit salvation.
This includes both Jewish and Gentile believers. That is,
not all who are descended from Israel are Israel. Nor
because they are his descendants are they all Abraham’s children. On
the contrary, "It is through Isaac that your offspring will be
reckoned." In other words, it is not the natural children who are
God’s children, but it is the children of the promise who are regarded
as Abraham’s offspring. Rom
9:6b-8
As for the word "helps", I don't think that's the most accurate or
common usage. In fact the Greek word used there "epilambanomai" means
"to take upon". That word is used 19 times in the New Testament and
most commonly translated "take", "catch", "lay hold on". I think
he means to say is that he does not take angels into his family, but he
takes Abraham's descendants to be his brothers.
Jesus became
Our High Priest
Heb 2:17 For this reason he had to be
made like his brothers in every way, in order that he might become a
merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might
make atonement for the sins of the people.
In what way was Jesus made like us? Apparently in every way. Probably
meaning in every way relevant to him qualifying as a merciful and
faithful high priest. "and that" is inaccurate. Rather it uses the
infinitive. He becomes a faithful high priest in service to God,
to
make atonement for the sins of the people. But what is the logic
here?
Much of Hebrews from chapters 5 to 10 will speak on the priesthood of
Christ. Basically the high priest is a sort of mediator between God and
man.
"There is one God and one mediator between
God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for all
men." 1Tim 2:5,6 Though under the Law of Moses there
were men assigned to the role of priest and high priest, Jesus is THE
("Par Excellence" - see the comment on Heb 2:5-8) high priest. The
roles of priesthood under the Law were shadows of that which was
fulfilled in Christ.
Now a mediator is a "go-between" guy. He has to identify with
both parties. Jesus is in very nature God. (
Php 2:6) He is the
Creator. (
John 1:3; Heb 1:10; Heb 3:3,4) But to be a mediator
for mankind, he had to become a man. So
"In the
beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God. ... And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we
beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full
of grace and truth." John 1:1,14
But to what extent he became human is controversial and the subject of
the next verse.
Jesus
Empathizes with Us
Heb 2:18 Because he himself suffered when
he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.
This cannot be speak of merely experiencing the physical sufferings we
experience due to our mortality. It has to do with actually
experiencing sinful temptations and the suffering associated with
resisting such temptations, seeing as the role of the priesthood is
about dealing with sin and the guilt associated with sin.
"For we do not have a high priest who is unable
to sympathize
with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way,
just as we are— yet was without sin." Heb 4:15 And
given
that
"For this reason he had to be made
like his brothers in every way" Heb 2:17a, Jesus must
have been born with the same sinful nature as everyone else has - the
Adamic nature inherent in the flesh which is a significant source of
our experience of temptation- in order to qualify him as the mediator
between God and man. In fact the NIV often translates the Greek
word for "flesh" as "sinful nature". The flesh that Jesus had was the
same kind of flesh that we have.
"For what the law was powerless to do in that it
was weakened by the sinful nature, God did by sending his own Son in
the likeness of sinful man to be a sin offering. And so he condemned
sin in sinful man, in order that the righteous requirements of the law
might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the sinful
nature but according to the Spirit." Rom 8:3,4